SortingBeans

As we continue in this series, it should be of good value for me to incorporate mercy and salvation into the discussion.
I have read some many articles on Open Theism and how it is the most plausible theological position we as humans can ascribe to. People use passages of Scripture such as Exodus 32:11-14 to prove that God’s mind isn’t set in stone on how the future should occur. In this particular passage, Moses pleads to God and God “relents” from destroying the people of Israel. Some translations use the word “repent” which I do not agree with. The Hebrew word actually means to sigh or breath strongly. in this context, it would have been a move of pity and mercy, not repentance.

So what does this mean in regards to God’s knowledge?
Well, some could use the following logic:

1. Moses pleaded to God to change His mind
2. God changed His mind
3. Therefore, God does not necessarily know the future

Now, I must say, this does seem attractive. After all, in this context, it does seem as though this would be the logical conclusion. Let us note, however, a few other passages. Ecclesiastes 3:14 speaks of what God sets in place is forever firm, 1 John 2:2 states that Jesus is the propitiation of sins for those who believe, Ephesians 1:9-10 states that the purpose of all this was to “make known to us the mystery of His will” that He has planned “for the fullness of time,” and Eph. 1:11-12 says this is something God “predestined” according, again, to His purpose and will, to “the praise of His glory.” The word “predestined” literally means to mark out prior to, as in appoint beforehand. There’s no alternative way of rendering this passage. Now, we see God’s plan for salvation to be something preordained by Him. This is something He chose to do according to the “council of His will,” which was fulfilled in Christ, and to be fulfilled in future believers. If this is a plan of God, and is something that is being fulfilled according to His purposes, and God will indeed bring it to “the fullness of time,” then how could God not know – entirely – the future? For Job 42:2 sates that God’s purposes cannot be thwarted. If there is even just one place, anywhere in Scripture, where God purposes some plan of His and brings it to fulfillment, then He is not a God of Open Theism (Gen. 18:14; 21:1-2).

How does this relate to Moses changing God’s mind?

John the baptizer affirmed God’s sovereignty in John 3:27 by saying that no one receives anything unless it is from God. I would submit that it was God who gave Moses such a desire to plead with Him, so that God could glorify Himself in His people by showing mercy on them at that particular time by not destroying them. Instead, He sent a plague (Exe. 32:35).

In the same way, God decided to relent on destroying the world, as He did in the days of Noah, and show us mercy by sending His only begotten Son as “a propitiation by his blood” (Rom. 3:25) to reveal God’s own righteousness in people, thereby glorifying Himself in people through Christ (Rom. 3:26 — this could make for a good segue into sola fide).

If Open Theism is true, how can the plans of God be assured? Again, back to our original text: Isaiah 40:8. Just because we cannot understand it fully, does not mean that God has ultimate, and perfect knowledge of all time; He is consistently omniscient.

Next I will talk about what this means for a Christ follower.

- Jonathan J.